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Showing posts with the label dual nature

Does John 8:58 prove Jesus is the One God?

John 8:58: “Very truly I tell you,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!” ( I am is ego eimi in Greek) Most Christians, automatically, on auto-pilot, (mistakenly in my opinion) assume Jesus was quoting Yahweh in Exodus 3:14 where God says: “ I AM WHO I AM.” And he said, “Say this to the people of Israel: ‘ I AM has sent me to you.’ The apostles used the Septuagint and in it, at Exodus 3:14, Yahweh says: "I am the Being ; and he said, Thus shall ye say to the children of Israel, the Being has sent me to you." The being is "ho on", NOT "eigo eimi" in Greek. I am (eigo eimi) simply introduces what he was ("ho on") instead of defining it. Notable scholar F. F. Bruce says: "If a direct reference had been intended to Exodus 3:14 in the present passage (John 8:58), one might have expected "ho on" rather than "ego eimi." (The Gospel of John, 1983, p. 193) In other words, Jesus did not, I repeat di...

Does John 1:1 prove that Jesus is part of a trinity?

"Without a doubt, misunderstanding these verses at the beginning of the gospel of John has done more to further the cause of Trinitarian orthodoxy than misunderstanding any other section of Scripture. Whenever we challenge the traditional understanding of God and Christ, the first three verses of John’s prologue are invariably and almost immediately brought to the forefront of the discussion. Thus, it behooves us as workmen of God’s Word to thoroughly consider them."~~(Schoenheit, John W.; Graeser, Mark H.; Lynn, John A.. One God & One Lord: Reconsidering the Cornerstone of the Christian Faith (p. 205). Spirit & Truth Fellowship International. Kindle Edition.) And as Kegan Chandler notes: "Interestingly, we find that misunderstanding Jesus is actually a major theme of the Gospel of John.  Episodes involving his audience’s misinterpretation of his sayings occur in at least fifteen out of the twenty-one chapters.  Might contemporary audiences be missing his int...

Does Philippians 2:5-8 prove that God became a man?

"Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. ("taking on the likeness of humanity" from the Christian Standard Bible is a better less bias translation here) And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." (Philippians 2:5-8) Traditionally, most Christians have misunderstood these beautiful verses and readily assumed the humiliation in view is God becoming a man, BUT is that the author's context and intent? These inspiring Philippians texts call to mind a few correlating passages that can help us reach a proper interpretation. "For you know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though he was rich, yet for your sakes he became poor, so that you through his poverty might become rich...